Gideon_70
New Member
Okay, I posted a former One Wife thread, but then I ran into an issue... and this was the result.
1 Tim 5:9
"Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man,..."
Greek is, "gynē heis anēr." (Not posting the actual Greek...)
In this passage, nearly every commentator says that it means a woman who was never divorced then remarried. Since polygyny, sorry, polyandry was not an issue then, it wasn't done, then it would not be referring to that. Every time a woman is spoken of as widowed and remarried it's said in a different way.
So we go to a different passage.
1 Tim 3 / Titus
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,..."
Greek is "anēr heis gynē." (Again, not posting the Greek)
This passage is vague, because it's not talking about being faithful even if some translations take it there.
Both of these examples are similar enough to justify my new stance, that if a man has divorced and remarried, then he should not... but it's not even that simple. Many people who marry in our culture are not marrying under a biblical standard, but man's standard. They have no Ketubah, no real agreement, and "Forsaking all others," is so open ended that it's worthless as a real promise. LOL, it would actually mean that you forsake everyone in your life, current and future... and it's a promise that's broken the very first time someone says to the groom or bride, "Hey, come over here a minute."
Now, I found something that is amazing... and have been in conversation about it. I'll post a new thread on it when I've settled it in my mind.
1 Tim 5:9
"Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one man,..."
Greek is, "gynē heis anēr." (Not posting the actual Greek...)
In this passage, nearly every commentator says that it means a woman who was never divorced then remarried. Since polygyny, sorry, polyandry was not an issue then, it wasn't done, then it would not be referring to that. Every time a woman is spoken of as widowed and remarried it's said in a different way.
So we go to a different passage.
1 Tim 3 / Titus
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,..."
Greek is "anēr heis gynē." (Again, not posting the Greek)
This passage is vague, because it's not talking about being faithful even if some translations take it there.
Both of these examples are similar enough to justify my new stance, that if a man has divorced and remarried, then he should not... but it's not even that simple. Many people who marry in our culture are not marrying under a biblical standard, but man's standard. They have no Ketubah, no real agreement, and "Forsaking all others," is so open ended that it's worthless as a real promise. LOL, it would actually mean that you forsake everyone in your life, current and future... and it's a promise that's broken the very first time someone says to the groom or bride, "Hey, come over here a minute."
Now, I found something that is amazing... and have been in conversation about it. I'll post a new thread on it when I've settled it in my mind.