I tend to agree with you on this point, but not based on that passageI understand your point. I will study it deeper. At this point I have a hard time believing that this would not be a moral principle applicable to all wives.
I tend to agree with you on this point, but not based on that passageI understand your point. I will study it deeper. At this point I have a hard time believing that this would not be a moral principle applicable to all wives.
Oh? I am interested in what other passages your thinking of...I tend to agree with you on this point, but not based on that passage
Because the context of the passage in question is giving specific instructions on a specific type of situation. If it applied to all situations, God could have said that it did, but it doesn’t say that.
This passage seems to be saying that if a man is not providing for his family he has denied the faith and is worse than an unbeliever. Taking all these passages together, i would conclude that a woman may leave her husband if he refuses to provide for her basic needs.
I’m not sure I understand what you mean.The next logical step would be to conclude whether or not she is “eternally” bound to this worse than an infidel husband.
The big problem here is that the shepherd metaphor isn't the one that applies to "marriage". It's Christ and the church. And the Master will always follow His own guidelines. I know wounded sheep elicit a reflexively emotional desire to protect them but that doesn't mean we can take charge of another shepherd's flock.I just posted this thought in this thread http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum/threads/independent-contractor-or-servant.14240/ I’m not certain that I have the answers, but I think when I do it will be somewhere down this train of thought.
Along the lines of that same Shepherd/Steward metaphor, what does a Shepherd/Steward do when the Master entrusts him with a wounded sheep? What if this wounded sheep was wounded by the neglect or abuse of another Shepherd/Steward that was in His service? Does the Master have the right or authority to entrust this sheep to another shepherd/steward? If he doesnt have that right, does that mean that the wounded or abused or neglected sheep is doomed to be alone for the rest of their life? No protection, no provision, no care, and exposed to the wolves and the wild until they are emaciated and dead with no possibility to be fruitful and fulfill their Master’s will for their lives.
It’s easy to determine what the Master would do if one of His Shepherd/Stewards were to die. He would appoint another Shepherd or merge that flock with another flock. What’s more difficult to determine is what happens when one of His Shepherd/Stewards is a poor leader or steward or just downright abusive or neglectful with those entrusted to him. I think the answers to these questions are indicated in passages like Ezekiel 34 and Jeremiah 23 among others.
There are many people who would disagree vociferously with this. The purpose is most definitely to discuss the minutia of every topic. If it's not in there then it's not foundational..There are many things not specifically dealt with within the Canon simply because the purpose of the Canon is to point to Christ rather than to discuss the minutia of family law.
Then why is there so much of Christ’s life left blank?There are many people who would disagree vociferously with this. The purpose is most definitely to discuss the minutia of every topic. If it's not in there then it's not foundational..
No, saying only prostitution was fornication would make no sense, I completely agree. However, the word "porneia" is based on the root word "porn" which means "prostitute". So the two words are related, and it is helpful to consider this relationship when understanding the meaning of the word. However the word is not limited to prostitution.OK I understand where you are coming from. Thank you for explaining yourself rather than using one line passive aggressive responses. I am here to learn and honest discussions are much more condusive to that... My disagreement would be if you take your definition of fornication to its logical conclusion you are saying that only prostitution is fornication and I don't see that making logical sense in several of the passages where that word is used.
No, saying only prostitution was fornication would make no sense, I completely agree. However, the word "porneia" is based on the root word "porn" which means "prostitute". So the two words are related, and it is helpful to consider this relationship when understanding the meaning of the word. However the word is not limited to prostitution.
For instance, a man taking his father's wife is referred to as fornication (1 Co 5:1). That's not prostitution, but it IS something that is banned in Torah. The simplest understanding of "porneia" is that it is "illicit", ie "unlawful", sexual intercourse. In other words, sexual intercourse that is prohibited in Torah (because if it were not prohibited in Torah, it would not be unlawful).
.. i would conclude that a woman may leave her husband if he refuses to provide for her basic needs.
I do not think I can follow you. It sounds to me like you are lawyering (and mixing verses written to different people as you acknowledge) to find a loophole. The verse you quoted "Let not the wife depart from her husband" means to me exactly what it says. It does not say "Let not the wife depart from her husband, unless things are really bad."
Are christians commanded to stay with unbelieving spouses? If so, why does Paul differentiate between the two and specifically state that it is not the commandment of the Lord for believers to stay with an unbelieving spouse?
If a man stops providing food, clothing, and sex to his wife, he has abandoned her. Is she supposed to chase after him until she dies of starvation? I don’t mean that in a snarky way, I’m seriously asking. What is she supposed to do?
How do the passages in question not work together?
Edit:
I think these passages do work together. All but one verse are from the same passage and all are penned by the same author. Yes they are written to different groups ( although technically speaking, they are written to one group, the church), but they are not written to address some unique issue in one particular place. Paul specifically states that what he’s talking about in Corinthians is what he ordains in all churches. The one verse from Timothy is not written to address something unique, but is an overlaying principle.
is there any type of fornication that a wife could commit that would not also be adultery? Possibly lesbianism?
Point taken and I tend to agree.I'm pretty sure that lesbianism is never a sexual sin. Please see....
http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum/threads/to-avoid-derailing-another-thread.14175/#post-165268
http://www.biblicalfamilies.org/forum/threads/david-and-bathsheba.14138/page-12#post-165252
Example; if her father or her husband told her not to partake of another woman, and she does anyway, it would think it is the disobedience, not the "lesbianism" that was the sin.
Because it's not relevant and God didn't want us manufacturing a Christian version of the Hadith where misguided people try to be like Christ by imitating the superficial aspects of life in first century Palestine. Why do you think it's important? And if it was why would God omit it?Then why is there so much of Christ’s life left blank?
I can't think of anything obvious, except for fornication committed jointly with her husband (sex during her period, as that's forbidden in Torah so is by definition also unlawful sexual conduct ie fornication). Hypothetically, doing something sexual that is forbidden by her husband (female-female sex or anything else he chooses to forbid for whatever reason). But you're right, outside that basically whatever she does wrong would be adultery.In your opinion is there any type of fornication that a wife could commit that would not also be adultery? Possibly lesbianism? Again this comes down to the practical and applicable definition of adultery and fornication...
Because it's not relevant and God didn't want us manufacturing a Christian version of the Hadith where misguided people try to be like Christ by imitating the superficial aspects of life in first century Palestine. Why do you think it's important? And if it was why would God omit it?