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The inconsistencies in arguing polygyny is adultery.

frederick

Seasoned Member
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Please contribute thoughts and reasons to help others understand polygyny isn't adultery. This is something that is frequently thrown up against us, so it would be useful to have a thread that addresses the issue.
 
I'll begin... I heard a guy say David was in adultery for having more than one wife. The guy had just pointed out David's sin of adultery with Bathsheba, and quite correctly shown this was the sin of adultery because she was the wife of Uriah. He then went on to say David continued in adultery because he had more than one wife. The inconsistency was noting these women were all David's wives - he used those very words. The sin of adultery necessitates the woman being the wife of another man, which the guy proved none of these women were because they were David's own wives. David only had sexual relations with his own wives before and after his sin with Bathsheba.
 
1 Kings 15:5 ESV: because David did what was right in the eyes of the Lord and did not turn aside from anything that he commanded him all the days of his life, except in the matter of Uriah the Hittite.

It cites the specific instance of Bathsheba being adultury, but no others. Makes it easy to address the specific instance you mentioned 😀
 
Many will say Jacob (among others) was in adultery for having more than one wife; Leah first, then Rachel, then the two maids. However, in Matthew 8:11 Jesus said Abraham, Isaac and Jacob would be in the kingdom of heaven. Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 saying, neither fornicators nor adulterers will inherit the kingdom of God.

Obviously, Jesus isn't wrong and Paul isn't wrong, so having multiple wives can be neither fornication nor adultery.
 
When describing what coveting is, we also find a nugget about the definitions of what appears to be adultery as well.

David was also guilty of coveting first, then adultery by…
“You shall not covet your neighbor’s house; you shall not covet your neighbor’s wife, nor his male servant, nor his female servant, nor his ox, nor his donkey, nor anything that is your neighbor’s.”

Jesus followed it up with this.
“But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.”

Lust and covet are synonyms from different languages.
 
Please contribute thoughts and reasons to help others understand polygyny isn't adultery. This is something that is frequently thrown up against us, so it would be useful to have a thread that addresses the issue.

Define what is adultery first:

Adultery is sexual contact between a married man and a woman who is married to someone else.

If the man and woman are married to each other then that's not adultery.

Legally, in the West, only one man and one woman can be married to each other. Unless they're Muslim and that's okay for some odd reason.

But what of a man with one legal wife and three or four women who are not legally married but instead cohabitating with a religious marriage commitment?

Last I checked there is no court in the US that will say anything about this because if they do then they have to deal with the Muslim question, too.
 
Define what is adultery first:
Excellent point, thanks Megan, and I should have been more precise in my request. We should first settle this issue with those who accuse us of adultery. Ask the one making the accusation to show you from the Bible the biblical definition of adultery.

Biblically, adultery involves a woman married to a man having sexual relations with another man. This is defined in passages such as Leviticus 18:20; 20:10; Deut. 22:22; Romans 7:2-3; etc. Both the married woman and the man, whether married or single, commit the sin of adultery.
 
Oh and why would Solomon be warning his son about the adulterous woman, while simultaneously having 999 of them?
 
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